Reverse mapping question

Barry Margolin barmar at bbnplanet.com
Sat Aug 14 00:23:53 UTC 1999


In article <37B4AA2F.43A17F0C at tamu.edu>, shh at tamu.edu <shh at tamu.edu> wrote:
>Well, I've been reading all that I can find on running a DNS on Linux.
>I'm still a little confused about the reverse mapping.  It seems that
>somehow, my ISP has to tell in-addr.arpa (I think) that they are no
>longer in charge of DNS for my IP address.  Is that correct?

No.  Your ISP is in charge of their block of addresses, and if they
delegate part of that to you they tell everyone who asks them.  DNS is
hierarchical: the servers for in-addr.arpa tell everyone where the servers
for z.in-addr.arpa are, the servers for z.in-addr.arpa tell everyone where
the servers for y.z.in-addr.arpa are, the servers for y.z.in-addr.arpa tell
everyone where the servers for x.y.z.in-addr.arpa are, and so on.

>I guess my question is really this.  In the near future, I'd like to
>host my own domain, and provide DNS services for it.  Does my ISP have
>to do anything in order for me to use my IP address for such a purpose?

They have to delegate the reverse block to you.  If they've assigned a
block smaller than /24 (a class C) then they should use the technique in
RFC 2317.

-- 
Barry Margolin, barmar at bbnplanet.com
GTE Internetworking, Powered by BBN, Burlington, MA
*** DON'T SEND TECHNICAL QUESTIONS DIRECTLY TO ME, post them to newsgroups.
Please DON'T copy followups to me -- I'll assume it wasn't posted to the group.


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