subdomain authority??

[TIM MOORE]

I think you are right about that Barry.  I just have never tested. 
Thanks.


>>> Barry Margolin <barmar at alum.mit.edu> 12/22/2005 2:47 PM >>>
In article <doebu7$15ct$1 at sf1.isc.org>,
 "TIM MOORE" <MOORET10 at odjfs.state.oh.us> wrote:

> This might be a simple question, I just haven't found the answer
looking
> through the archives.  I want to know if I can be authoritative for
a
> subdomain (eg. child.example.com) and still send requests for the
parent
> domain to a specific external server (example.com).

That's what happens by default.  A server responds authoritatively for

any zones it's authoritative for, and recurses for everything else.

>  We currently run
> DNS completely internal to the internet and I would like to be
> authoritative for a subdomain and still have the requests for the
parent
> domain go to a public DNS server.  How would I do the config?  Would
I
> use a foward statement specifically for the parent domain, or would
> requests naturally go to our fowarder because we do not have the
> parent?

They'll naturally go to your forwarder.  Isn't this what happens when a

server is authoritative for example.com and someone asks for 
somethingelse.com?  Is there any difference between this and being 
authoritative for child.example.com and processing requests for 
example.com?

-- 
Barry Margolin, barmar at alum.mit.edu 
Arlington, MA
*** PLEASE post questions in newsgroups, not directly to me ***
*** PLEASE don't copy me on replies, I'll read them in the group ***



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