slave on per-zone basis only?

Joe Kattner joe.kattner at
Wed Feb 20 19:10:05 UTC 2002


No, a slave does not have to have the same zones as a master. Common
implementations often do (one master and one slave that carry the exact same
zones), but it is not a required to be configured that way.

Each domain on the server is independent of the other, you are not required
to maintain any type of pairing that a slave carries the exact same zones as
it's master(s). You could host some number of zones on a master and have
separate slave servers for different (or some combination) of the zones. You
can mix master zones and slave zones on the same server, which will work
(and possibly cause administration headaches down the road).

Yes a slave is required to have an entry for each zone that is delegated to
it. There is no global command to tell it what zones are supposed to be
there, they must be defined in you're named.conf on the slave. Either
manually or via some automated method you have to enter them into BIND's
configuration file for it to know what zones it is authoritative for. A
slave could pull those zones from a single master, or a number of different

Being able to define where slaves and masters reside for each zone allows a
lot of flexibility in how to configure DNS servers on you're network.


-----Original Message-----
From: j2n tech [mailto:dweeb at]
Sent: Wednesday, February 20, 2002 9:31 AM
To: comp-protocols-dns-bind at
Subject: slave on per-zone basis only?


I have a general question about the configuration of slave nameservers.
Does a slave have to have an entry for every zone that a master serves?
Such as:

zone "" {
                        type slave;
                        file "";
                        masters {;  };

Does an entry such as this need to added for *every* domain that this server
is a slave for?  Or is there a global command that will tell the server to
slave for every domain a specific master serves?


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