Reverse DNS record for my webhost
gtaylor at tnetconsulting.net
Tue Aug 7 04:36:44 UTC 2018
On 08/06/2018 08:29 PM, A wrote:
> I have a VPS and requested my webhost to fix reverse DNS for my domain &
> IP. They responded by telling me to provide them with the records I want.
> I found the following response to someone's question on the *Net*:
> Many ISPs will put in CNAME records with values that have a
> subdomain you DO control.
> so they have 188.8.131.52.in-addr.arpa. (one of "your" addresses) as
> "IN CNAME 4-3-2-1.yourdomain.com".
> Then you go into "your domain.com" and add
> 4-3-2-1 IN PTR foohost.example.com
> So you can change your PTRs, and the world finds them via your
> ISP's CNAMEs.
> And I thought that seemed a good way to go. But I don't want to play
> guessing games with my webhost as to the right record(s) and want to
> confirm my guesses (and the above statement) with you experts before
> casting it in concrete (or worse, having to repeatedly redo it to get it
> right). In particular, he states:
That sounds like Classless IN-ADDR.ARPA delegation. Check out RFC 2317.
Link - Classless IN-ADDR.ARPA delegation
They would really set up the 184.108.40.206.in-addr.arpa. as a CNAME to
Then you set up a PTR record for <something>.<yourdomainname> that
resolves to the name that you want reverse DNS for 220.127.116.11 to resolve to.
> Just to be clear I have multiple subdomains/CNAMEs, but just one IP
> address. I plan to run multiple apache vhosts on my VSP and single IP.
That may be problematic. Either you're going to end up publishing
multiple records for <something>.<yourdomainname> -or- the IP address
will reverse resolve to one FQDN.
I prefer the second route, and make all the vanity domain names be
CNAMEs to the single name that the IP reverse resolves to.
> Thanks in advance!
Grant. . . .
unix || die
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